As you have learned to evaluate different research studies, what elements seem the most important to you for evaluation of the research’s quality? Why?

Question

Question 1

How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

a. By passive electrolyte channels

b. By coupled channels

c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)

d. By diffusion

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse’s best response?

a. Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus

b. Increased paternal age

c. Family history of Down syndrome

d. Pregnancy in women over age 35

Question 4

In teaching a patient with cirrhosis, which information should the nurse include regarding cholesterol?

a. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen.

b. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which reduces its ability to carry hemoglobin.

c. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which allows binding of excess glucose.

d. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which prolongs its life span beyond 120 days

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as _____ atrophy.

a. Physiologic

b. Pathologic

c. Disuse

d. Neurogenic

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for?

a. The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease

b. The individual who has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal

c. The phenotype of genetic material

d. The codominance

Question 7

A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is –70 millivolts. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

a. K+ rushing into the cell

b. Na+ rushing into the cell

c. Na+ rushing out of the cell

d. K+ rushing out of the cell

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?

a. XY

b. XX

c. XYY

d. XXY

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

When a patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis, how should the nurse respond? Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene.

a. X-linked dominant

b. X-linked recessive

c. Autosomal dominant

d. Autosomal recessive

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?

a. Electron-transport chain

b. Aerobic glycolysis

c. Anaerobic glycolysis

d. Oxidative phosphorylation

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?

a. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)

b. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF)

c. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium

d. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?

a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development

b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle

c. Restrain cell growth and development

d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient?

a. Active-mediated transport (active transport)

b. Active diffusion

c. Passive osmosis

d. Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with:

a. Penetrance

b. Recurrence risk

c. Expressivity

d. Delayed age of onset

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

The nurse is teaching staff about the most common cause of Down syndrome. What is the nurse describing?

a. Paternal nondisjunction

b. Maternal translocations

c. Maternal nondisjunction

d. Paternal translocations

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A patient has severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart?

a. Prader-Willi syndrome

b. Down syndrome

c. Cri du chat syndrome

d. Trisomy X

Question 17

A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?

a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleus Cytoplasm

Question 18

The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as:

a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Chloride

d. Glucose

Question 19

A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese).Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Liquefactive necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Autonecrosis

Question 20

A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?

a. Become hydrated

b. Swell or burst

c. Shrink

d. Divide

Question 21

The early dilation (swelling) of the cell’s endoplasmic reticulum results in:

a. increased aerobic metabolism.
b. failure of DNA.
c. reduced protein synthesis.
d. increased Na+-K+ pump function.

Question 22

After a geneticist talks to the patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may _____ genetic disease(s).

a. only be a carrier of the
b. have a mild form of the
c. have two
d. be sterile as a result of the

Question 23

A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?

a. Down syndrome
b. Cri du chat syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. Fragile X syndrome

Question 24

Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:

a. decreased ATP production.
b. karyorrhexis.
c. ribosome detachment.
d. dehydration.

Question 25

An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide?

a. Penetrance
b. Expressivity
c. Dominance
d. Recessiveness

 

 

 

Post a description of the relevance of complexity science and chaos theory to a specific situation in your organization or one with which you are familiar. Explain how you would use this knowledge base to be most effective in various nursing leadership and management roles (e.g., as a nurse executive, unit-level manager, charge nurse, team leader).

Question

Question 1.Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the nurse practitioner should assess for:

Hypokalemia

Impotence

Decreased renal function

Inability to concentrate

Question 2. A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.

The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.

Question 3. Rodrigo has been prescribed procainamide after an episode of MI. He is monitored for dyspnea, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema because they may indicate:

Widening of the area of infarction

Onset of congestive heart failure

An electrolyte imbalance involving potassium

Renal dysfunction

Question 4. Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?

It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen.

GI adverse effects are common, so the drug should be taken with food.

Adherence can be improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.

Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.

Question 5. Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

Hemoglobin

Serum potassium

Blood urea nitrogen

Serum glucose

Question 6. Art is a fifty-five-year-old smoker who has been diagnosed with angina and placed on nitrates. He complains of headaches after using his nitrate. An appropriate reply might be:

“This is a parasympathetic response to the vasodilating effects of the drug.”

“Headaches are common side effects with these drugs. How severe are they?”

“This is associated with your smoking. Let’s work on having you stop smoking.”

“This is not related to your medication. Are you under a lot of stress?”

Question 7. Donald has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. On the basis of his lipid profile, atorvastatin is prescribed. Rhabdomyolysis is a rare but serious adverse response to this drug. Donald should be told to:

Become a vegetarian since this disorder is associated with eating red meat

Stop taking the drug if abdominal cramps and diarrhea develop

Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately

Expect “hot flash” sensations during the first two weeks of therapy

Question 8.

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

Nitrates

Long-acting dihydropyridines

Calcium channel blockers

Alpha-beta blockers

Question 9. First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

Statins

Niacin

Lifestyle changes

Bile acid-binding resins

Question 10. Patients who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring of:

Complete blood count every four weeks

Hematocrit and hemoglobin at one week and then at eight weeks

Reticulocyte count at one week

Folate levels every four weeks until the hemoglobin stabilizes

Question 11. Isosorbide dinitrate is a long-acting nitrate given twice daily (BID). The schedule for administration is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because:

Long-acting forms have a higher risk for toxicity.

Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect.

It must be taken with milk or food.

Nitrate tolerance can develop.

Question 12. The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina.Angina that occurs with  unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is:

Class I

Class II

Class III

Class IV

Question 13. Which of the following drugs has been associated with increased risk for MI in women?

Aspirin

Beta blockers

Estrogen replacement

Lipid-lowering agents

Question 14. Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

Niacin (Niaspan)

Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

Question 15. An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

Beta blockers

Diuretics

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Question 16. Jose is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with a reevaluation in six months.

statins

niacin

sterols

bile acid-binding resins

Question 17. Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

Asthma might worsen.

Diabetes might worsen.

Both might worsen.

Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.

Question 18. At which stage/classification of hypertension should drug therapy be instituted according to the JNC-7 Report?

Prehypertension

Stage 1

Stage 2

Any stage where the blood pressure is greater than 120/80 mm Hg

Question 19. Beta blockers treat hypertension because they:

Reduce peripheral resistance.

Vasoconstrict coronary arteries.

Reduce norepinephrine.

Reduce angiotensin II production.

Question 20. Because primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, treatment is based on interfering with the physiological mechanisms that regulate blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics treat hypertension because they:

Increase renin secretion.

Decrease the production of aldosterone.

Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume.

Decrease blood viscosity.