Question 1: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

Question 2: Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

Question 3: Which statement about vaccines is true?

Question 4: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

Question 5: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 7: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 10: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

Question 11: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

Question 12: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

Question 13: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 14: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 15: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 16: Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

Question 17: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 18: Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Question 19: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 20: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Question 21: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

Question 22: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 23: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 24: Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

Question 25: What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

———————————————————

Question 1: Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

Question 2: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

Question 3: What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?

Question 4: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

Question 5: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

Question 6: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

Question 7: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

Question 8: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

Question 9: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

Question 10: Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

Question 11: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

Question 12: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

Question 13: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

Question 14: Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.

Question 15: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against

Question 16: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

Question 17: An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:

Question 18: Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?

Question 19: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 21: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 22: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

Question 23: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

Question 24: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

Question 25: The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

———————————————————

Question 5: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

Question 6: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

Question 8: Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Question 11: Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

Question 13: The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is

Question 14: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

Question 17: The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the

Question 18: Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by

Question 20: What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?

Question 21: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 25: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

———————————————————

Question 3: The body compensates for anemia by

Question 4: In some anemias, the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as

Question 8: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

Question 12: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

Question 17: What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?

Question 18: Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 25: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

———————————————————

Question 1: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

Question 2: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

Question 3: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the

Question 4: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

Question 5: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

Question 6: Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of

Question 7: Which are indications of dehydration?

Question 8: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.

Question 9: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

Question 10: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include

Question 11: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

Question 12: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

Question 13: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

Question 14: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

Question 15: Which of the following is a true statement?

Question 16: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

Question 17: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

Question 18: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

Question 19: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?

Question 20: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

Question 21: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

Question 22: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

Question 23: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

Question 24: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

Question 25: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

———————————————————

Question 1: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of

Question 3: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

Question 5: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

Question 6: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the

Question 8: Dyspnea is not a result of

Question 11: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

Question 14: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

Question 19: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

Question 20: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

Question 21: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

Question 22: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

Question 23: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

Question 3: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

Question 6: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?

Question 7: Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of

Question 10: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

Question 16: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

—————————————————

Question 1: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

Question 2: Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

Question 3: Which statement about vaccines is true?

Question 4: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

Question 5: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 7: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 10: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

Question 11: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

Question 13: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 14: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 15: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 16: Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

Question 17: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 18: Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Question 19: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 20: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Question 21: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

Question 22: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 23: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 24: Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

Question 25: What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

—————————————————

Question 1: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Question 4: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

Question 6: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

Question 7: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Question 8: What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 9: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

Question 11: In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

Question 12: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 13: The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

Question 14: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

Question 15: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

Question 16: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

Question 17: The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to

Question 18: Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

Question 19: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

Question 20: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis?

Question 21: Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome?

Question 23: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Question 25: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

—————————————————

Question 7: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

Question 14: Stress-induced norepinephrine results in

Question 15: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

Question 19: Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

Question 20: Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome?

Question 21: By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

Question 24: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

Question 11: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

—————————————————

Question 1: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

Question 3: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of

Question 4: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

Question 15: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

—————————————————

Question 1: A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume. These findings are consistent with _____ anemia.

Question 2: Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

Question 3: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

Question 4: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

Question 5: What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?

Question 6: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

Question 7: Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Question 8: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

Question 9: Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of

Question 10: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

Question 11: Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

Question 12: The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is

Question 13: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

Question 14: Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.

Question 15: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

Question 16: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

Question 17: Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by

Question 18: An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with:

Question 19: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

Question 20: Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

Question 21: The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

Question 22: When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Question 23: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

Question 24: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

Question 25: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

NR 507 Week No. 6 Discussion:

PART No. 1:

You are contacted by an attorney representing a client who has been charged with child abuse and whom faces loss of her child and 15 years in prison. The record indicated that the child was 4 years old and presented to the ER room with a broken arm and a broken leg. There also appeared to be multiple previous fractures. Now, you examine the child and find blue sclera, a sunken chest wall, severe scoliosis, and you observe a triangular face and prominent forehead. You confirm that there have been multiple previous fractures by evaluating the previous X-rays. This is a genetic disorder.

• What      is the most likely genetic disease that this presents and why?
• What      is the molecular basis of this disease?
• Before,      calling the police what should the initial clinician have done?

PART No 2:

Johnny is a 5-year-old Asian boy who is brought to a family practice office with a “runny” nose that started about 1 week ago but has not resolved.  He has been blowing his nose quite frequently and “sores” have developed around his nose.  His mother states, “The sores started as ‘big blisters’ that rupture; sometimes, a scab forms with a crust that looks like “dried maple syrup” but continues to seep and drain.”  She is worried because the lesions are now also on his forearm.  Johnny’s past medical and family histories are normal.  He has been febrile but is otherwise asymptomatic.  The physical examination was unremarkable except for moderate, purulent rhinorrhea and 0.5- to 1-cm diameter weeping lesions around the nose and mouth and on the radial surface of the right forearm.  There is no regional lymphadenopathy.

• Write      a differential of at least three (3) possible diagnoses and explain how      each may be a possible answer to the clinical presentation above.      Remember, to list the differential in the order of most likely to less      likely.
• Based      upon what you have at the top of the differentials how would you treat      this patient?
• When      would you allow the student back to school? Elaborate on your reasoning?

PART No. 3:

Keisha, a 13-year-old female, has come into your urgent care center. She has red conjunctiva, a cough and a fever of about 104 F, She also has a rash on her face a possibly the beginning of a rash on her arms. About 10 days ago she was around another student who had similar symptoms.

• Write      three (3) differential diagnoses?
• What      are some of the complications of this disease, assume that the top of your      differential is the definitive?
• Assume      that the second item you place on your differential is the definitive      diagnosis. What are some complications of that disease?

PEER:

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz Solutions:

1. Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of RANKL expression?(Points : 2)

2. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by (Points : 2)

3. Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat a compound displaced fracture of the tibia and fibula? (Points : 2)

4. Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? (Points : 2)

5. What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon? (Points : 2)

6. Which statement is false about giant cell tumors? (Points : 2)

7. What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone? (Points : 2)

8. The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving (Points : 2)

9. In osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis, which is considered the “path of least resistance.” What factor makes this route for bacteria the path of least resistance? (Points : 2)

10. Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with (Points : 2)

11. Ewing sarcoma arises from (Points : 2)

12. Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? (Points : 2)

13. The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures. (Points : 2)

14. Osteochondrosis is caused by a(n) (Points : 2)

15. An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children. (Points : 2)

16. In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin is associated with an immediate reaction? (Points : 2)

17. Chickenpox may be followed years later by (Points : 2)

18. Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen. (Points : 2)

19. Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck? (Points : 2)

20. Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n) (Points : 2)

21. Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by (Points : 2)

22. What is the cause of chickenpox? (Points : 2)

23. Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age? (Points : 2)

24. What is a common source of tinea corporis? (Points : 2)

25. Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?(Points : 2)

NR 507 Week 2 Discussion:

PART No. 1:

A five-month-old Caucasian female is brought into the clinic as the parent complain that she has been having ongoing foul-smelling , greasy diarrhea. She seems to be small for her age and a bit sickly but, her parent’s state that she has a huge appetite. Upon examination you find that the patient is wheezing and you observe her coughing.

· Write a differential diagnosis of at least three (3) disorders and explain why each might be a possibility and any potential weaknesses of each differential.

· Why is it that the later in age this disease manifest itself, the less severe the disease is?

· What tests would you run to clarify your differential and potentially come to a definitive diagnosis?

· If the same child was African in ancestry would this change your initial differential? Why or why not?

PART No. 2:

Tammy is a 33-year-old who presents for evaluation of a cough. She reports that about 3 weeks ago she developed a “really bad cold” with rhinorrhea. The cold seemed to go away but then she developed a profound, deep, mucus-producing cough. Now, there is no rhinorrhea or rhinitis—the primary problem is the cough. She develops these coughing fits that are prolonged, very deep, and productive of a lot of green sputum. She hasn’t had any fever but does have a scratchy throat. Tammy has tried over-the-counter cough medicines but has not had much relief. The cough keeps her awake at night and sometimes gets so bad that she gags and dry heaves.

· Write a differential of at least three (3) possible diagnosis’s and explain how each may be a possible answer to the clinical presentation above. Remember, to list the differential in the order of most likely to less likely.

· Based upon what you have at the top of the differential how would you treat this patient?

· Suppose now, the patient has a fever of 100.4 and complains of foul smelling mucous and breath. Indeed, she complains of producing cups of mucous some days. She has some trouble breathing on moderate exertion but this is only a minor complaint to her. How does this change your differential and why? à Bronchiectasis p. 1256 can happen after an infection

PART No. 3:

A nursing student comes into your office because they are struggling with the concept of pulmonary function. They know you as an experienced FNP and so they are comfortable asking if you could clarify the terms residual volume (RV), functional reserve capacity (FRC), total lung capacity (TLC) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV).

1. Give her a definition of each?

2. List three (3) disorders that can alter the residual volume and explain how they do so?

NR 507 Week 2 Quiz (CH 3, 34-36 + 8 – 13 from week 1)

1. At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the (Points : 2)

2. Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of (Points : 2)

3. When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? (Points : 2)

4. Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate (Points : 2)

5. Which are indications of dehydration? (Points : 2)

6. In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of (Points : 2)

7. Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of (Points : 2)

8. In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating (Points : 2)

9. Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg. (Points : 2)

10. Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma? (Points : 2)

11. The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with (Points : 2)

12. Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration? (Points : 2)

13. _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. (Points : 2)

14. In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the (Points : 2)

15. Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of (Points : 2)

16. Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include (Points : 2)

17. Dyspnea is not a result of (Points : 2)

18. High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through (Points : 2)

19. Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults. (Points : 2)

20. What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn? (Points : 2)

21. An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n) (Points : 2)

22. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n) (Points : 2)

23. Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect? (Points : 2)

24. Which of the following types of croup is most common? (Points : 2)

25. Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma? (Points : 2)

Read the following case study: The Triple Aim Journey: Improving Population Health and Patients’ Experience of Care, While Reducing Costs

Assignment Required Reading:
http://www.commonwealthfund.org/~/media/files/publications/case-study/2010/jul/triple-aim-v2/1421_mccarthy_triple_aim_journey_overview.pdf

Prepare a paper that discusses the following questions.

1. What is the Triple Aim and why is it so difficult to implement?
2. Why should health care organizations deliver health care with a focus on population health? (make sure you define population health)
3. Explain how the Triple Aim attempts to “bend the cost curve” as it relates to the case study.
4. Provide an example of an organization that is successfully implementing the Triple Aim in their community. What were the measures they used to define success? Are these models replicable to all communities throughout the United States? Why or Why not?

Your paper should include the following:

• Twelve to fifteen pages in length, not including the title and reference pages.
• Five to eight peer-reviewed references cited in the assignment. Remember, you must support your thinking/opinions and prior knowledge with references; all facts must be supported; in-text references used throughout the assignment must be included in an APA-formatted reference list. (References should be current, not more than five years old, additional references articles from the popular press such as the WSJ and Washington Post should also be considered.)
• Review the grading rubric, which can be accessed from the Course Information page.
• Formatted according to APA Writing Requirements.